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  • In RVSM airspace, how many Altitude Reporting Transponders must be installed and how many must be operational?
  • What items are on the DC utility bus?
  • When does the ground valve open or close?
  • What is the maximum continuous N1 percentage?
  • How many Generator Control Units (GCU) are there on the CRJ-550, and how are they distributed?
  • The start-of-APU EGT range is specified as which temperature range?
  • The green disk indicates which event?
  • How many Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) are in the cockpit?
  • What is the make and model of the APU?
  • What is the Ground Start N2 range?
  • Alternate Derived Minimums specify increments for NAVAIDs. What are the increments for 1 NAVAID and for 2 NAVAIDs?
  • Night LAHSO is allowed only when which conditions are present?
  • What is the CRJ maximum cruise Mach number during flight in RVSM airspace?
  • FUEL IMBALANCE (YELLOW) threshold?
  • The FMS meets the enroute, terminal, and non-precision approach lateral performance/accuracy criteria of which advisory circular?
  • In a cross-talking scenario, a FADEC will assume the other engine has failed when the N1 difference reaches what minimum percentage?
  • If hydraulic systems 2 and 3 are lost, what happens to Nose Gear extension?
  • The water extracted from the Pack is used to:
  • Enroute use of Slats/Flaps is:
  • What holds the Nose Gear in the retracted position?
  • When you engage GA/GA, how many degrees does the FD pitch up?
  • Which of the following is a vertical mode?
  • If a cooling activation fails on the ground, which valve is implicated?
  • What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light is depressed?
  • Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
  • What is the Window Of Circadian Low time frame?
  • What is the maximum bank angle in TO/TO or GA/GA mode?
  • How many seconds of warning is provided by a Resolution Advisory (RA)?
  • What is the normal O2 bottle pressure?
  • What is the CRJ maximum altitude for single pack operation?
  • Which component is immediately before the Turbine in the PACK air flow path?
  • What does LRBL stand for?
  • Stabilized Approach Criteria: Which item is NOT a criterion?
  • When the Captain's NORM/EMER switch is set to EMER, what happens?
  • What are the maximum runway slopes approved for takeoff and landings?
  • If the Elevator System is jammed, what is the recommended first action?
  • How are the avionics cooled?
  • Terrain awareness alerting and display functions must be inhibited within which phases and within what distance of an airport not contained in the EGPWS airport database?
  • During a bleed duct fault with left or right bleed duct indicated, which action determines the affected side?
  • Why are there two lights next to the Autopilot Connect Button?
  • Which bus energizes the Cockpit Voice Recorder when powered?
  • What is the stab trim range?
  • When are you required to file a Second Alternate due to Exemption 17347?
  • AC90-100A operations must not be conducted with any of the following messages displayed. Which single option listed is an example?
  • What is the maximum positive end of the stab trim range?
  • What does the message BLEED OPEN indicate about the APU status?
  • What is the controlling source of temperature information while taxing?
  • Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below what value is prohibited?
  • What speed must the aircraft fly to the alternate airport during a diversion due to minimum fuel?
  • What does the message BLEED CLOSED indicate about the APU status?
  • What is the maximum ITT for a windmill start?
  • The Flight Data Recorder records the last ______ hours of critical aircraft and flight parameters.
  • The ozone limit of 0.25 PPM applies up to which altitude?
  • The wingspan of the CRJ-550 is 76 Feet, 3 Inches. Which option lists this measurement correctly?
  • Once thrust reversers have been deployed, which of the following actions is correct?
  • How far from the radome should you be?
  • Which statement best describes the green EGT indication?
  • What powers the operability valve?
  • What is the normal climb speed?
  • Emergency Fuel (ATC) in minutes?
  • Which A/P engagement altitude is the lowest among the listed approach types?
  • What is the Maximum Gear Down and Locked Speed?
  • Which component directly follows Heat Exchanger (Primary) in the PACK air flow path?
  • Prior to using SPEED, V/S or PITCH mode to change altitude, what must first be done?
  • Which item is NOT part of the PACK air flow path?
  • Bank Angles in Excess of ____ degrees will result in a wing strike?
  • The ozone limit of 0.1 PPM for the 3 Hour Interval applies up to which altitude?
  • What color is the alert for FUEL IMBALANCE?
  • How many AC Buses are there and what are they?
  • When selecting the bleed source during bleed duct operations, which choice should be made?
  • Which is an example of a Level 1 Security Threat?
  • What is the high speed climb speed?
  • What speed should be bugged after reaching acceleration altitude with one engine?
  • A/P engaged for Non-Precision Approach occurs at what altitude above ground level?
  • Pitch Angles in Excess of _____ degrees will result in a tail strike?
  • During the Cabin Alt Msg or Emergency Descent Procedure, what is the first action to be taken?
  • How many N1 blades are there?
  • APR N2 limit value is?
  • Which of the following lists all CPC operational phases?
  • After stowing the ADG, what is the next action to transfer power back to the primary bus?
  • What is the maximum deploy and stow cycle time for thrust reversers?
  • The maximum duration without engine oil servicing is 36 hours. Which of the following best matches this limit?
  • What is the average winter weight of a child?
  • The EGPWS may fail to alert a terrain threat under certain ambient conditions. Which of the following is true?
  • What protection is provided in the event of a stab trim runaway?
  • At approximately 14,000 Feet, which event would you expect to occur automatically?
  • Will the main engines start without their respective boost pumps running?
  • What is the maximum nosewheel deflection with the rudder pedals?
  • In Auto Cross Flow, the low tank will be filled until the difference between tanks is how many pounds?
  • What is the minimum O2 pressure required for three crew members?
  • In marginal weather, what are the published minimums for Destination and Alternate?
  • The CRJ-550 has how many ground lockpins?
  • In EMER mode, which two functions are connected to the Captain's headset?
  • How many DME channels does the aircraft have?
  • On approach, the go-around mode is armed under which condition?
  • Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor located?
  • What is the oil pressure after 10 minutes for a windmill start?
  • In the Smoke / Fire / Fumes Procedure, what are the initial actions required?
  • How are the ailerons, rudder, and elevator hydraulically powered?
  • Which AC Bus is typically used to support essential systems when normal power is unavailable?
  • Which statement combines CVR storage duration and oxygen duration?
  • Which unit coordinates stab trim brakes and spoiler stabilization?
  • What is the total number of AC Buses listed for the aircraft?
  • What is the average weight of a Pilot?
  • What is the freezing point of Jet A bulk fuel?
  • Towbarless towing requires compliance with which manual?
  • What is the average weight of a FA Flight Kit?
  • What cabin altitude value triggers the red CABIN ALT alert?
  • Maximum Cruise Speed: What is the value?
  • What are the three interconnected fuel pumps within the accessory gear box?
  • What should you do if you observe ice accretion on the flight deck side windows indicating SLD icing?
  • Which of the following is not a lateral flight mode?
  • The maximum time for ground DC power usage to protect CRT displays is 5 minutes. True or false?
  • Which Pack provides cooling to the cabin?
  • Which statement describes wing anti-ice schedules and slats?
  • What cabin altitude value triggers the yellow CABIN ALT alert?
  • The four DME channels not dedicated to RTUs are used for what purpose?
  • Zero Fuel Weight + Landing Fuel equals what?
  • Total fuel at full in gravity mode is what quantity?
  • Which option lists only the engine idle states that are actually used on the CRJ-550?
  • What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing on a contaminated runway?
  • GoJet recommended holding speed above 15,000 feet up to and including Flight Level 310?
  • Can FLEX thrust be used on a wet runway?
  • Level 1 Security Threat is defined as which of the following?
  • Under High Minimums, the captain must
  • Which of the following is true for alternate aerodrome operations?
  • What is the function of the APU Load Control Valve (LCV)?
  • Which control on the flight deck captures the current pressure altitude from the flight control computer when engaged?
  • Which speed pair describes Normal Climb Speed?
  • Spoilers retract after landing when which precise condition is met?
  • APR Oil Pressure limit is?
  • Which indicator is associated with Weight Off Wheels according to the material?
  • Which vertical mode maintains a specified altitude?
  • After engine shutdown, how long must you wait before checking the oil level?
  • Outflow Valve will only allow the cabin to rise to which altitude?
  • How many seconds of warning is provided by a Traffic Advisory (TA)?
  • Which condition is required to accept a LAHSO?
  • What is the first action to restore normal power after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?
  • In the air conditioning system, how many temperature sensors are on the flight deck and how many are in the passenger compartment?
  • Level 4 Security Threat is demonstrated by which scenario?
  • What is the maximum weight allowed in the Aft Cargo Compartment?
  • Which SOV fails in the open position?
  • Do not hold icing with slats or flaps extended. Which statement is true?
  • Will the alternate flap extension switch move the slats and flaps while flying faster than 230 KIAS?
  • Minimum Temperature in Flight?
  • Backcourse approaches are prohibited.
  • Which of the following is an aborted start condition?
  • Which row is the emergency exit doors on the CRJ-550?
  • If Ice Detection System annunciates ICE, what action is required for wing anti-ice during flight?
  • What is the idle oil pressure range when the oil temperature is below 60C?
  • Which unit is used for oil pressure values in this data?
  • Maximum Taxi and Ramp Weight (CRJ-700)?
  • Which of the following is a Takeoff Configuration Warning?
  • What is the maximum continuous N2 percentage?
  • What is the minimum flight weight for the CRJ-550 and CRJ-700?
  • APU RPM Red limit is what percent?
  • At Idle Thrust, the Intake Damage Area is how many feet?
  • Normal Battery _______ V and _______ A?
  • When will AUTO Hydraulic Pumps start?
  • How many fire detectors are in the forward cargo compartment?
  • What is the minimum temperature in flight listed for the aircraft?
  • Oil temperature limits for TOGA and APR are the same value.
  • Height of the CRJ-550?
  • What powers the APU ECU?
  • In the pitch mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click will provide how much pitch change?
  • The maximum engine oil consumption per hour is expressed in which unit?
  • Which Pack provides cooling to the cockpit?
  • What is the size of the Oxygen Cylinder?
  • What is the N2 range for an assisted air start?
  • What is the Maximum Gear Retraction Speed?
  • Which statement accurately describes the location of the oxygen walk-around bottles?
  • Which type of approach is prohibited?
  • What is the indicated speed for Flaps 20?
  • Under Captain Will's restrictions, when must all takeoffs be made?
  • Reverse idle should be achieved by which speed?
  • After a landing or rejected takeoff, what is the minimum brake cooldown time?
  • Under High Minimums, landing minimums increase by
  • What is the maximum EGT permitted for the APU under any operating condition?
  • Will both boost pumps turn on if only one of the boost pump switchlights is pressed?
  • What is the maximum engine oil consumption per hour per engine?
  • What is the operability valve?
  • What is the maximum duration without engine oil servicing (operating hours)?
  • What is the indicated speed for Flaps 1?
  • Depressing the APU PWR FUEL switch light indicates which action occurs?
  • During windmill airstart, what is the minimum airspeed and N2 requirement?
  • What is the minimum value in the green oil temperature range?
  • Airstart (Starter Assisted) from Flight Level 210 to Sea Level requires what targets?
  • The Auto Pilot should be engaged on takeoff at what altitude above ground level?
  • What is the maximum taxi speed per SOP?
  • Bypass air accounts for _____% of total thrust?
  • At what altitude do passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?
  • On takeoff the outflow valve will close and pressurize the cabin to approximately how many feet below the field elevation?
  • Normal hydraulic accumulator charge and its job is:
  • What prevents the engines and APU from supplying bleed air at the same time? This also prevents the APU from supplying air to anti-ice systems.
  • How many static wicks are on the tail?
  • How many DC Bus ties are there?
  • Which statement best describes when you should accelerate to 250 knots during takeoff?
  • What is the minimum oil level required for flight when the affected engine is not started?
  • The minimum O2 for 3 crew is 1110 PSI. Which number is closest to this value?
  • If the Aileron System is jammed, what is the recommended first action?
  • What thrust procedure is recommended for takeoff under the described wind condition?
  • What is the indicated speed for Flaps 45?
  • If the Oxygen bottle reads 950 PSI, which indicator is likely shown?
  • LAHSO acceptance requires which type of guidance?
  • In the BARHA minimum fuel mnemonic, what does Add (Ballast) stand for?
  • The Maximum relief differential pressure is which value?
  • How many outflow valves are there on the aircraft?
  • ITT must be ______ before attempting to ground start engine?
  • When will you hear a Triple Chime Aural Warning?
  • How many stages does the APU turbine have?
  • Is takeoff allowed with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical areas?
  • What is the maximum weight per seat allowed for cargo under-seat storage?
  • The maximum speed for ADG operation is which value?
  • TOGA N1 value is what percentage?
  • Which hydraulic system maintains pressure to hold the Main Landing Gear in the retracted position?
  • What is the speed for Flaps 8 to Flaps 1, as specified in the material?
  • Fuel Burn plus Maximum Landing Weight equals what value?
  • What value is the maximum oil pressure limited to when the oil temperature transient is less than 60C?
  • Which listed item has the lightest average weight?
  • What is the difference between Speed Mode in CLM or DES versus IAS?
  • Spoilers retract after landing under which condition?
  • When is a Full Aircraft Search required?
  • Step down fixes between the FAF and the MAP are:
  • What powers each AHRS if its respective power source is lost?
  • What is the average weight of the Pilot Flight Kit?
  • What is the maximum oil pressure allowable for ground start?
  • TOGA oil pressure range is?
  • How many overheat detection loops are in the main landing gear bay?
  • What controls the landing gear?
  • Engine Start on the Ground 1st and 2nd Attempt results in what cycling pattern?
  • Which statement about DC bus ties is true?
  • Damp Runway is defined as which of the following?
  • APR Oil Temperature limit is?
  • There are 2 Multifunction Spoilers and 2 Ground Spoilers Per Wing (1 Inboard and 1 Outboard). How many spoiler assemblies are there per wing?
  • What do the yaw dampers do?
  • Level 2 Security Threat is defined as which of the following?
  • Which item is NOT a condition for First Officers with Less Than 100 Hours that would require the Captain to take all takeoffs and landings?
  • Normally, the CPC switch between active and standby occurs how many minutes after landing?
  • During Auto Cross Flow, fuel imbalance greater than how many pounds will trigger low tank filling until it is 50 pounds more than the other?
  • What protects the flight controls in the event of a PCU runaway?
  • What class are GoJet's cargo compartments?
  • Which vertical mode is used for ILS glide slope guidance?
  • What holds the Main Landing Gear in the retracted position?
  • Which power sources supply the DC Emergency Bus?
  • What is the TOGA ITT limit for five minutes?
  • What is the CVR's audio storage duration?
  • If wind is +30 degrees off the nose with windspeed between 5 and 30 knots, what procedure should be followed for rapid relight?
  • For routes up to FL320, what is the ozone concentration limit?
  • Which DC Bus provides power to essential systems?
  • What is the normal Hydraulic Tank quantity?
  • NEF Maximum Extension Authorization: Which value corresponds to Category 4 (Cat4)?
  • Max N2 (Red) for the CRJ-550 is what percentage?
  • How are the tires thermally protected from blowout?
  • When ambient temperatures are above what value in Celsius does the windshield delay selection issue occur after takeoff?
  • Which statement is true about the speeds for Flaps 1, Flaps 8, and Flaps 20?
  • APU Starter cutout on the ground occurs at what percent N2?
  • What is the primary action to take if the aircraft experiences uncommanded yaw motion?
  • What is the T2 probe and where is it mounted?
  • Which combination accurately describes the APU starter motor duty limitations?
  • No visual approaches can be accepted out of ______ NM.
  • Which category has an average weight of 58 pounds?
  • What is the altitude range for All-Engine-Out Rapid Relight procedure?
  • Can you continue a flight into an area where supercooled large droplet icing conditions exist?
  • What wind condition is described for the takeoff scenario?
  • How are the thrust reversers armed and controlled?
  • When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder energized?
  • What is the maximum crosswind component for Takeoff?
  • How is the FADEC powered when engine N2 is below 50%?
  • Where is the Halon fire extinguisher bottle located for lavatories?
  • Which AC Bus powers the APU Battery Charger?
  • Which of the following is the largest listed average weight?
  • What is the engine cooldown limitation prior to shutdown?
  • Takeoff with any thrust reverser icons displayed on EICAS warning/caution messages is
  • How many O2 walk-around bottles are there and where are they located?
  • When do the FADEC Channels Switch?
  • Which statement about CRJ-700 weights is true?
  • What is the average checked bag weight?
  • When is APR armed on takeoff?
  • Which trim is used for flap compensation?
  • Which option best describes the primary function of yaw dampers?
  • Which condition classifies a runway as contaminated?
  • Which components manage bleed air distribution and the air-conditioning system?
  • When N2 is above 50%, the FADEC is powered by which source?
  • To protect CRT displays, the maximum permissible time for ground operations with DC power is:
  • Which NEF category has a 180 calendar days extension?
  • What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during takeoff?
  • In BARHA, which component corresponds to the letter H?
  • Reduced/FLEX thrust for Takeoff is NOT authorized when which condition is present?
  • Continuous engine ignition must be used during which condition?
  • In vertical speed mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click provides how much VVI change?
  • Which of the following thresholds is used in GLD Auto Deployment criteria involving the radio altimeter?
  • Level 3 Security Threat is defined as which of the following?
  • If counting PCUs powering Elevator, Ailerons, and all Spoilers, how many PCUs power these control surfaces in total?
  • What is the long-range climb speed for the CRJ-550?
  • What is the maximum bank allowed in a 1/2 Bank?
  • The minimum ambient temperature to start a cold-soaked APU on the ground is which value?
  • Max Oil Temp (Red) for the CRJ-550 is what temperature?
  • Towbarless towing is prohibited unless the operation is performed in compliance with the towbarless towing requirements in which manual?
  • Which statement about hydraulic system is true?
  • What is the maximum frost thickness allowed on the underside of the wing caused by cold soaked fuel?
  • When within 2,000 feet of the assigned altitude, the vertical speed should be reduced to
  • What is the ITT limit for an assisted air start?
  • How much time does Reserve Fuel give you?
  • When Type II or Type IV anti-icing fluids have been applied, wing anti-ice should be ON when?
  • What is the maximum continuous ITT value?
  • Wet Runway is defined as which of the following?
  • What does the Constant Speed Drive do?
  • How many fuel injectors per engine?
  • How long does AHRS in DG mode take to initialize?
  • What is the average weight of a Flight Attendant?
  • If wind is +30 degrees off the nose with less than 5 knots windspeed, what limitation applies to TOGA thrust prior to brake release?
  • Which component powers the flight control hydraulically?
  • If the fuel imbalance exceeds 200 pounds, which tank is filled first?
  • Is powerplant intermixing operations allowed?
  • What is the Maximum Takeoff Weight (CRJ-700)?
  • How many T2 probes are installed on a two-engine aircraft?
  • APR stands for what term in engine performance terminology?
  • How many DC Buses are there?
  • Flaps Retracted Max "G" Loading is which range?
  • What voltage is required as the minimum to start the APU on both the APU and the main battery?
  • During an unreliable airspeed condition, which sequence involving autopilot and flight directors is recommended?
  • Which thrust value is greater?
  • Pressing the ALT button on the FCP will:
  • Pressing the TOGA switch on the thrust lever will
  • How are the Yaw Dampers actuated?
  • Which statement is true about the warm-up N1 limit?
  • ACM (Additional Crewmember) Carry On Weight?
  • A red line through TO/TO occurs when the Vr and V2 are split by more than how many knots?
  • What is the average summer weight of an adult?
  • Which statement best describes the required crossflow configuration for takeoff?
  • What is the maximum weight on the passenger door at a time?
  • What is the minimum speed for ADG operation?
  • What does the FLEX ROLLING BLEEDS OPEN message indicate regarding the APU status?
  • After hitting the APU start button, when does the starter cut out?
  • What is the maximum nosewheel deflection with the tiller?
  • Depressing the RTU Inhibit switchlight enables what function?
  • What is the maximum takeoff weight for the CRJ-550?
  • What is the minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff?
  • When are the TAT Probes and the Pitot Bases heated?
  • Oil pressure above idle between what range requires oil temperature monitoring?
  • The taxi lights must be switched OFF whenever the aircraft is stationary in excess of how many minutes?
  • What is an Air Cycle Machine?
  • How are the Engine Bleed Air Valves Controlled?
  • IDG frequency value.
  • When the autopilot transfer switch is set to the copilot's side, which component commands both flight directors?
  • What is APR Thrust in Pounds?
  • Can the APU provide bleed air for anti-icing?
  • When must you get a new flight release?
  • How many rechargeable battery packs power the Emergency Lighting System?
  • For an alternate aerodrome, which basis of approach is required?
  • During a stabilizer trim runaway, which action is required?
  • What action is indicated by a Configuration Warning?
  • When Battery Master is OFF, which busses are powered?
  • How many Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) are in the cabin?
  • At what flight level must the remaining pilot wear oxygen mask if one pilot leaves the controls?
  • Is MACH Trim disabled when Auto Pilot is in use?
  • Which jumpseat ACM weight is greater on average?
  • Basic Empty Weight (BEW) is defined as
  • Which flap setting has the lowest listed speed?
  • What is the N1 idle speed percentage range?
  • How many static wicks are installed on the wings of GoJet planes?
  • Total number of oxygen generators on the aircraft?
  • What is the maximum G loading for Flaps Extended?
  • When engines are running and bleeds configured for takeoff, N1 target values must correspond to thrust chart data within?
  • How many DC Power Centers (DCPC) are there?
  • Which CPC phase is defined as a practice landing where the aircraft touches down and immediately leaves the runway?
  • What is the maximum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff and landing?
  • What type of engine air bleed valves are installed on the CRJ-550?
  • For all air starts, ITT must be at or below what temperature?
  • Which statement about the CRJ-550's engine idle states is accurate?
  • When would Exemption 17347 apply?
  • What is the contingency fuel minimum for United Express?
  • Which DC Bus is named to carry battery power directly from the main source?
  • What is the normal descent speed?
  • What is the total number of fire extinguishers on the aircraft?
  • During airstart, which statement accurately describes when TOGA thrust may be applied before brakes released?
  • Max Weight in the Aft Cargo Compartment?
  • At maximum thrust, the exhaust damage area is how many feet?
  • In Alternate Derived Minimums, how much is added for 1 NAVAID?
  • Oil temperature in the amber range is between which temperatures?
  • What is the maximum landing weight for the CRJ-550?
  • Which fuel mnemonic includes Burn, Alternate, Reserve, Holding, and Add (Ballast)?
  • Above FL350, climb at no less than Mach what?
  • What provides gust lock protection on the ground?
  • Are Engines High Power Schedule Switchlight permitted during normal operations?
  • Which component comes last in the PACK air flow path?
  • What does the FLEX ROLLING BLEEDS CLOSED message indicate regarding the APU status?
  • N1 green range is defined as which of the following?
  • What is the maximum allowable airport pressure altitude for performance?
  • The APU door is powered by which power source?
  • The Constant Speed Drive maintains a constant RPM for which component?
  • Do-not-exceed APU EGT value under any operating condition is which temperature?
  • What is the oil pressure after 10 minutes in an assisted air start?
  • Which is greater, the Maximum Taxi and Ramp Weight or the Maximum Takeoff Weight?
  • Holdover time exceedance or heavy snow conditions a visual pre-takeoff contamination check must be conducted within ________ minutes of takeoff.
  • A visual pre-takeoff contamination check must be performed within 5 minutes if holdover time has been exceeded or during which condition?
  • What is the maximum airport pressure altitude?
  • If the Rudder System is jammed, which action is specified?
  • How are the DC bus ties controlled?
  • What powers the APU door?
  • Average weight of duffle bags and overweight bags?
  • LAHSO cannot be accepted when the aircraft is under which altitude AGL?
  • The APU EGT Green range ends at what temperature?
  • Which color-coded alert corresponds to 8,500 feet?
  • For engine start or motoring in flight during 2nd through 5th attempts, what is the recommended on/off pattern?
  • IDG power rating in kVA?
  • Igniter A is powered by which power source?
  • For an engine start or motoring attempt in flight on the 1st attempt, what is the on/off pattern?
  • Which start type has an ITT limit of 815C?
  • What is the total number of fire detectors in both the forward and aft cargo compartments?
  • When stopped, L or R Oil Level LO status message appears below which percentage?
  • What is the maximum oil pressure for a windmill start?
  • When using cross-side tuning, what color will the displays be?
  • Which pairing correctly matches a position with its average weight?
  • Which two conditions will result in an automatic disconnect of the IDG?
  • What is the maximum weight allowed in the Forward Cargo Compartment?
  • What is the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU?
  • Which hydraulic system controls the nosewheel steering?
  • From which fuel tank does the APU receive fuel?
  • Mixing of different types of oils is described as which of the following?
  • The autopilot roll servo is connected to which control wheel?
  • Airstart (Windmill) from Flight Level 250 to Sea Level requires a minimum airspeed and N2: ?
  • In the IAC Cabin Alt Msg or Emergency Descent Procedure, what is the required initial action?
  • How are the wheels prevented from turning when you raise the Main Gear?
  • How many PCUs power the Ailerons?
  • How many minutes do the oxygen generators provide oxygen?
  • What is the maximum taxi and ramp weight for the CRJ-550?
  • During approach, ACSC switches from Engines to APU when Gear Down or Flaps Down occurs. Which statement describes the conditions?
  • Minimum Fuel (ATC) in minutes?
  • Average weight of an ACM in the Aft Jumpseat?
  • What is the Minimum Operating Empty Weight (CRJ-700)?
  • What is the APU operating range maximum RPM in percent?
  • The windshield wiper must not be operated above what speed?
  • Bleed air PSI required for start?
  • The bleed air start pressure is measured in which unit?
  • At what pressure altitude will the crew oxygen masks provide 100% oxygen regardless of switch position?
  • What is the maximum G loading for Flaps Retracted?
  • What is the maximum value in the green oil temperature range?
  • How many PCUs power a spoiler?
  • The IDG DISC switchlight FAULT light illuminates under which conditions?
  • At Idle Thrust, which damage area is larger?
  • Airstart (All-Engine-Out Rapid Relight) from 10,000 FT to Sea Level requires what?
  • APR power (one engine) is limited to how many minutes?
  • If there is an engine driven hydraulic pump problem (1A or 2A), is the associated engine required to be shutdown?
  • The Maximum negative differential pressure is which value?
  • What is the long range descent speed?
  • At Idle Thrust, the Exhaust Damage Area is how many feet?
  • How many PCUs power the rudder?
  • Which speed pair describes High Speed Descent Speed?
  • At what speed does the anti-skid system become operational?
  • TOGA N2 limit is what percentage?
  • Center Tank at Full: what is its fuel quantity?
  • What supplies the fuel to the engines?
  • How are the outflow valves actuated?
  • Which DC Bus is designated for emergency power supply?
  • Cowl anti-ice must be ON for flight operations under which condition(s)?
  • N2 Sync can be activated within what percent?
  • The DC Service switch is connected to which bus?
  • What engines does the CRJ-550 have?
  • After reaching acceleration altitude with two engines, the speed bug is set to which value?
  • Average weight of an ACM in the Forward Jumpseat?
  • How many fire detectors are in the aft cargo compartment?
  • What component slows the nose gear wheels when the gear retracts?
  • APR ITT limit for 5 Minutes?
  • Flight with Slats/Flaps extended at altitudes above which value is prohibited?
  • What is the maximum permissible load on the APU generator in kVA?
  • Which statement is true when comparing pressure-based total fuel at full versus gravity-based total fuel at full?
  • Which of the following is a lateral mode?
  • Required ITT condition before ground start is?
  • What is the average winter weight of an adult?
  • What N2 threshold changes the FADEC power source from AC Essential Bus to FADEC Alternator?
  • Bleed air extraction from the APU is not permitted above what altitude?
  • What happens if both FADEC channels fail or the FADEC loses power?
  • How are hydraulic systems 1 and 2 cooled in flight?
  • How does the GOM define 'BINGO Fuel'?
  • Speed reduction should be made ______ minutes before arrival at the holding fix?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as an AC Bus?
  • What must be completed prior to contacting maintenance control?
  • For ground starts, the allowed OFF time between attempts is how many seconds?
  • The starter must not be used if the indicated N2 RPM exceeds what percentage?
  • Oil pressures during start are shown as which indicator on the cockpit displays?
  • How many life vests does the CRJ-550 have?
  • What does the ground valve do?
  • What does the T2 probe do?
  • Precision RNAV Operations must not be conducted unless which component is operational?
  • Damp Runway is defined as not perfectly dry; for performance, it is considered to be which type of runway?
  • After starting both engines, what do the fuel switchlights indicate?
  • At initiation of thrust lever movement from SHUT OFF to IDLE, ITT must be what or less for all ground starts?
  • Under High Minimums, the landing minimums can never be lower than
  • What is the indicated speed for Flaps 30?
  • During initial take-off climb or go-around, what Pitch/N1 settings are recommended between sea level and 15,000 feet and above 15,000 feet?
  • In Alternate Derived Minimums, how much is added for 2 NAVAIDs?
  • What procedure is required before the first flight of a day if the airplane has been cold-soaked at -30C or colder for more than 8 hours?
  • The operability valve is designed to work in conjunction with the Variable Guide vanes.
  • During a Rejected Takeoff, which sequence of actions is correct?
  • To allow an engine to warm up, you should?
  • N2 green range is defined as which of the following?
  • What is the indicated speed for Flaps 8?
  • Which weather scenario requires filing a Second Alternate?
  • During start, oil pressure may peak beyond what value?
  • On the ground, what provides pressure for the potable water system to dispense water?
  • The icing threshold of 10C for TAT has an exception when SAT is below what temperature?
  • If an engine oil tank must be replenished, how many minutes must elapse after shutdown before servicing the engine?
  • LO FUEL (YELLOW) threshold?
  • What is the under-seat cargo weight capacity per seat?
  • For routes with a 3-hour interval up to FL270, what is the ozone concentration limit?
  • Ground operations: Wing anti-ice ON when OAT is which condition?
  • Oxygen Pressure Low (Yellow) occurs at what PSI threshold?
  • What is the maximum airspeed if the APU door is open and it is NOT running?
  • When will the Emergency Lights come on automatically?
  • Which action constitutes one of the three simultaneous steps in the IAC Rejected Takeoff procedure?
  • What is the minimum speed for cruise flight above 15,000 ft?
  • Former Mesa planes have how many static wicks on the wings?
  • When you engage TO/TO, how many degrees does the FD pitch up?
  • Avoid Thunderstorms by a minimum of how many miles?
  • In MEL deferral, which option describes the deferment term?
  • Flight Abort Mode is defined as what altitude and time specification?
  • What is the recording interval of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)?
  • Hydraulic Pressure Low is defined as
  • Which of the following is one of the 'at least two' criteria for GLD Auto Deployment?
  • How many fire extinguishers are in the cockpit?
  • Which option correctly pairs Normal Battery specifications?
  • Flight must be within how many minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment?
  • Which component ultimately drives the N2 compressor?
  • During engine start on the ground, what is the recommended ON/OFF pattern for the 3rd through 5th attempts?
  • What is the length of the CRJ-550 (Nose to Tail)?
  • In an OVBD COOL FAIL scenario, which valve failed to open after landing?
  • LAHSO criteria include stabilization of the approach. Which statement reflects this?
  • What does ISI stand for?
  • For LAHSO hold-short, which distance combination is acceptable if PAPI/VASI is available?
  • What is Normal Rated Thrust in Pounds?
  • What is the minimum oil temperature required for a ground start?
  • During airplane operations beyond 36 hours without engine oil tank servicing, when must the engine oil level be checked?
  • At maximum thrust, the intake damage area is how many feet?
  • The APU EGT Red limit corresponds to which temperature?
  • GoJet recommended holding speed up to 15,000 feet?
  • What is the ON/OFF pattern for the first engine motoring attempt on the ground?
  • The stab trim brakes are controlled by which unit?
  • Which mode is used to initiate a go-around?
  • Jet A bulk fuel takeoff limit temperature is set at what value?
  • The red EGT reading corresponds to which temperature?
  • APR ITT limit for 2 Minutes?
  • For takeoff, crossflow must be configured in which state?
  • Which flap setting corresponds to 170 knots?
  • Which components receive Half probe heating when a generator is on?
  • Which statement accurately reflects the policy on oil mixing?
  • Which color indicates oxygen pressure is low?
  • LO FUEL yellow condition: which combination is true?
  • Which option correctly describes the Emergency Lighting System?
  • How many fire extinguishers are in the cabin?
  • What altitude should be maintained per the guidance when uncertain about terrain or clearance?
  • The Flight Data Recorder is energized by which electrical power source?
  • What is the standard number of static wicks installed on the wings of GoJet planes?
  • Electric pumps (ACMPs) for the hydraulic system automatically activate when which condition is met?
  • What is the high speed descent speed?
  • Which is NOT a DC Bus?
  • The airplane has how many DC Power Centers?
  • Basic Operating Weight (BOW) is equal to
  • Which statement describes a Hung Start?
  • Which statement is true regarding cargo capacities?
  • What isolates the hydraulic pump from the system?
  • Which display shows localizer and glide slope deviation when NAV 1 is tuned to a valid ILS frequency?
  • What is the average summer weight of a child?
  • If you extinguish a fire with the cargo bottle in the forward compartment, what should be done about a fire in the aft cargo compartment?
  • In the PACK air flow path, which component comes first?
  • Which AC Bus powers the Main Battery Charger?
  • APR N1 limit is?
  • The DC essential bus primarily provides power for which aircraft system?
  • The threshold for Auto Cross Flow activation is 200 pounds, and it results in the low tank becoming how many pounds heavier than the other after fueling?
  • APU Battery _______ V and _______ A?
  • For the IAC Rejected Takeoff, which action is performed last among the three simultaneous steps: Thrust Levers - IDLE, Wheel Brakes - MAXIMUM, Thrust Reverser(s) - MAXIMUM?
  • What is the Least Risk Bomb Location (LRBL) on the CRJ-550?
  • Flaps Extended Max "G" Loading is which range?
  • Flaps 1 to Flaps 0 Speed is which of the following?
  • What is the TOGA oil temperature limit?
  • During a Rejected Takeoff, which action is performed first?
  • Which of the following statements is accurate about the DC Emergency Bus power configuration?
  • What holds the Main Landing Gear in the extended position?
  • During departure, ACSC switches from APU to Engines when which conditions are met?
  • Which weather constraint is part of LAHSO acceptance according to the material?
  • Normal takeoff power and maximum power (two engines) is limited to how many minutes?
  • Takeoff with a center tank fuel load in excess of 500 LBS is not permitted unless what condition is met?
  • How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
  • What is the Maximum Gear Extension Speed?
  • Max N1 (Red) for the CRJ-550 is what percentage?
  • How long does AHRS take to initialize in flight?
  • Flight operations: Wing anti-ice must be ON when which conditions?
  • What is the maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing?
  • The airspeed limitation for severe turbulence penetration is whichever is lower.
  • How is the fuel warmed to reach 5 degrees or greater?
  • What is required to perform a 600RVR Takeoff?
  • Which of the following is the correct IDG output voltage (volts)?
  • Which pair of APU-related limits is correct?
  • Which components receive Full probe heating when a generator is on?
  • Which airline is associated with the five-minute contingency fuel note?
  • How many stages is the low pressure turbine?
  • What Runway Condition Code triggers all takeoffs and landings under Captain Will's rule?
  • COM 3 is used for which function?
  • FADEC locks in the final N1 computation at takeoff when the aircraft reaches which speed?
  • Which listed item has the greatest average weight?
  • What must be accomplished prior to executing a hold above Flight Level 310?
  • Level 4 Security Threat is defined as which of the following?
  • How many start attempts are permitted for the APU starter motor in one hour?
  • What drives the N1 fan?
  • Which two actions form the base requirements for GLD System Auto Deployment?
  • For takeoff and landing performance, a damp runway is considered to be which type of runway?
  • Which DC Bus is directly connected to the APU battery for direct power?
  • How much room is needed for a 180 Degree Turn?
  • Which two conditions will cause the IDG to automatically disconnect?
  • In the IAC Smoke or Fumes Procedure, what is the required status of Oxygen Masks / Goggles?
  • On the ground, how are hydraulic systems cooled?
  • Which oil temperature range corresponds to the amber range?
  • How many PCUs power the Elevator?
  • GoJet planes have how many static wicks on the wings?
  • Which two actions are required to arm GLD System Auto Deployment?
  • GCU stands for Generator Control Unit. What does it regulate?
  • Min Oil Pressure (Red) for the CRJ-550 is what range?
  • What does an illuminated FAIL light on the AUTO XFER switchlight indicate?
  • The autopilot pitch servo is connected to which control wheel?
  • When do slats extend to 25?
  • When will you hear a Single Chime Aural Warning?
  • The airplane must be completely depressurized prior to which action?
  • Which actions are required if a re-route or altitude change will add more than 15 minutes to the Estimate Time Enroute (ETE) or compromise reserve fuel?
  • On the ground, with at least one generator on, what is the automatic heating intensity for AOA and Static Port?
  • What is a Transformer-Rectifier Unit (TRU) used for?
  • How many AC Power Centers (ACPC) are there?
  • What is the Green Line on the airspeed indicator?
  • Which Descent Rate value is part of Stabilized Approach Criteria?
  • At what altitude are the radio altimeters displayed on the PFD?
  • PSEU stands for what in the landing gear system?
  • Which battery has higher ampere-hours?
  • Which of the following is NOT a TO CONFIG OK requirement?
  • What is the water extracted from the Pack used for?
  • On a normal Takeoff, when should you accelerate to 250 Knots?
  • Which of the following is true about the forward and aft fire detector counts?
  • What is the main Generator and APU Generator load limitation?
  • What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance in all other phases of flight?
  • Which statement correctly combines the glidepath category and its engagement altitude?
  • Hydraulic Temperature (YELLOW) threshold?
  • What will be seen on the N2 gauges when the wing anti-ice system is activated?
  • Which statement reflects Captain Will's discretionary rule for takeoffs and landings?
  • Which statement correctly pairs AHRS initialization times on ground and in flight?
  • During landing, maximum reverse thrust is prohibited below which speed?
  • During warm-up with engines running and bleeds configured for takeoff, the target N1 values must correspond to thrust chart data within what tolerance?
  • What is the maximum altitude for an APU Start?
  • Long Range Climb Speed is prohibited above which flight level?
  • What is the AC PACK temperature range?
  • What is the maximum oil pressure during an assisted air start?
  • What is the Maximum Landing Weight (CRJ-700)?
  • How many DC Buses are named with 'DC' in their title?
  • Max Weight in the Forward Cargo Compartment?
  • How is visible moisture defined?
  • When will you have red lines through TO/TO?
  • What is the Tire Limit Speed (ground speed) for the aircraft?
  • For ground operations, the maximum allowed difference between left and right tank quantities is what?
  • If the primary trim switches on the yoke are activated while the autopilot is engaged, what happens?
  • What is the APU's primary function?
  • During Starter Assisted airstart, what altitude range applies?
  • What is the maximum crosswind component for Landing?
  • To ensure adequate maneuver margins, flight spoilers must not be extended in-flight at airspeeds below the recommended approach speed plus how many knots?
  • N1 Sync can be activated within what percent?
  • What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to start a Main Engine?
  • Which speed is highest among the listed flap speeds?
  • Can air be taken from the 6th and 10th stages simultaneously?
  • How does the lavatory fire extinguisher work?
  • Which one of the following is the correct maximum crosswind for landing?
  • What is the wingspan on the CRJ-550?
  • What is the average weight of a Roller Bag?
  • How many CPC operational phases are listed in the source material?
  • What is the overhead cargo weight capacity?
  • In the Smoke or Fumes Removal Procedure, what are the initial actions required?
  • What is the oil pressure after 10 minutes of a ground start?
  • Standard IFR Takeoff Minimum, Part 121, for the CRJ-550?
  • The acronym AGL stands for which phrase?
  • For a Precision Approach between +3.5 and 4.0 degree glidepath angle, A/P engagement at 120 feet AGL is allowed only if the airport elevation is at or below how many feet?
  • The N2 gauge arc turning white indicates power required for adequate ice protection up to what percentage?
  • What is the one-engine holding speed above 15,000 feet up to Flight Level 310?
  • How often do ACSC Channels switch?
  • What is the maximum continuous oil temperature in Celsius?
  • What is the maximum taxi and ramp weight for the CRJ-700 expressed in pounds?
  • What is the difference between the average winter weight of an adult and the average summer weight of an adult?
  • What is the idle oil pressure range?
  • Igniter B is powered by which power source?
  • When running, L or R Oil Level LO status message appears below which percentage?
  • Which statement is true about FADEC power?
  • Which option is not a gear operation speed?
  • In icing conditions during flight, at which indicated airspeed is wing anti-ice required when icing conditions are present?
  • Which action is a Level 2 Security Threat example?
  • The AUTO XFER switchlight FAIL light indicates what?
  • For a Precision Approach with glidepath angle less than 3.5 degrees, A/P engagement occurs at which altitude?
  • Oil temperature in the green range covers what range?
  • Which of the following is not a vertical mode?
  • Where is the hydraulic heat exchanger located?
  • Which glidepath category requires A/P engagement at 80 Feet AGL?
  • Cowl anti-ice must be ON for ground operations under which condition(s)?
  • For ground starts, the allowed ON time during a start attempt is how many seconds?
  • Which statement best describes life vests for infants on the CRJ-550?
  • Takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to which area if surface features can still be distinguished?
  • During all-engine-out rapid relight, wind within 30 degrees of the nose has what windspeed limit?
  • Level 3 Security Threat examples include which of the following?
  • Takeoff during moderate or heavy freezing rain is what?
  • Which trim is NOT a trim type?
  • When NAV 1 is tuned to a valid ILS frequency, which indications will the ISI display?
  • Oxygen disk blowout (green disk) occurs at which PSI range?
  • The TOO LOW GEAR warning is triggered when the aircraft is below which conditions?
  • When holding at altitudes above Flight Level 310, what is the minimum speed allowed per the SOP?
  • Which two physical processes are involved in the Air Cycle Machine's cooling action?
  • A/P engagement for Precision Approach with a +4.0 degree glidepath angle is:
  • What is the maximum ITT for a ground start?
  • Where do the yaw dampers receive data from?
  • What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed during over-wing refueling?
  • Before attempting an air start, ITT must be below what value?
  • What is the maximum continuous oil pressure range in PSI?
  • In the context of generator limits, which statement is true?
  • Cold soaked means the airplane has been exposed to temperatures of what and for how long?
  • What will cause the FAULT light to illuminate on the IDG DISC switchlight?
  • Brake accumulators are charged to what pressure?
  • If hydraulic systems 2 and 3 are lost, how is the Main Landing Gear extended?
  • What is the N2 idle speed percentage range?
  • Which parameter is defined as a range rather than a single value?
  • Which statement about alternate aerodrome navigation aids is true?
  • What powers the DC Emergency Bus and how is it powered?
  • Left/Right Wing Tank at Full: what is the pressure-based fuel quantity per wing tank?
  • What speed should be bugged after reaching acceleration altitude with two engines?
  • Which device is powered by the DC Emergency Bus as listed in the source?
  • During landing with excessive asymmetry or loss of braking, what sequence is recommended?
  • If a crosswind component of 29 knots is encountered during takeoff, which limit is exceeded?
  • During a Resolution Advisory (RA) what happens to the MFD range?
  • Center Tanks transfer to wings at which percentages?
  • Min O2 for 2 Crew?
  • Left/Right Wing Tank at Full: what is the gravity-based fuel quantity per wing tank?
  • Which of the following is an engine idle condition on the CRJ-550?
  • If a descent at 'pilot's discretion' is given by ATC and the altitude change is 6,000 feet or less, the pilot shall
  • What statement is true about the APU's fuel source?
  • From which flight control computers do the yaw dampers receive data?
  • The airplane has how many AC Power Centers?
  • The operability valve works in conjunction with which component?
  • Which unit is primarily responsible for sensing gear position to control gear operation?
  • LAHSO acceptance prohibits tailwinds exceeding how many knots?
  • What powers hydraulic pump 3B under normal operation?
  • When an alternate airport is required by operating rules, which statement is NOT a requirement?
  • During an approach and landing, when a WINDSHEAR amber caution occurs, what should be done?
  • What is the maximum oil pressure for a windmill start?
  • Normal Pressure Differential is which value?
  • What is the TOGA ITT limit for two minutes?
  • What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the CRJ-550?
  • In TOGA mode, which pair correctly lists the N1 and N2 maximum values?
  • APR N2 limit is?
  • Which statement is false according to the data?
  • If Unreliable Airspeed is suspected, which step is recommended first?
  • How long does AHRS take to initialize on the ground?
  • No ITT increase after 25 Seconds indicates which condition?
  • What is the maximum operating altitude?
  • Which statement best describes the labeling of the N1, N2, oil temperature, and oil pressure limits provided for the CRJ-550?
  • What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold-soaked APU on the ground?
  • What is the minimum flight crew?
  • If the APU EGT reads 807C, which color-coded condition is indicated?
  • The use of the EMERG DEPRESS switch above which altitude is prohibited?
  • Which speed is the most frequently listed among flap settings?
  • What is Normal Hydraulic Pressure?
  • During ADG deployment, which source powers hydraulic pump 3B?
  • Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight below what altitude?
  • What drives the accessory gear box?
  • In flight, what does the APU automatic fire protection provide?
  • On the ground, with at least one generator on, what is the automatic heating intensity for Pitot Tubes?
  • Oil pressure limits for TOGA and APR are the same.
  • How many safety valves provide overpressure and negative pressure relief?
  • What is the required psi for Engine Bleed Air Valves operation?
  • At cleanup altitude, what configuration should the aircraft be in?
  • In order to display TCAS information, the MFD range must be selected to?
  • How many oxygen generators are there?
  • Above what flight level is Long Range Cruise prohibited on the CRJ-550?
  • What is the required cooldown delay between cranking attempts?
  • Idle thrust damage areas are 13 feet for intake and 100 feet for exhaust. Which pair matches these areas?
  • The altimeters must be within how many feet in RVSM Airspace?
  • For engine motoring on the ground 2nd through 5th attempts, what is the recommended pattern?
  • At what altitude is 1/2 Bank automatically engaged?
  • Flaps 8 to Flaps 1 Speed is which of the following?
  • How often are VOR checks completed on GoJet Aircraft?
  • Captain Will restrictions specify that all takeoffs and landings must occur on runways that are shorter than how many feet?
  • What is the illumination duration provided by the Emergency Lighting System?
  • The APU will not start if the APU RPM exceeds certain speeds on the ground and in flight. What are these limits?
  • What is required for an airport to qualify as a Takeoff Alternate?
  • What is the go-around minimum fuel quantity per wing tank and the associated nose-up pitch angle?
  • What condition triggers the AUTO PRESS (YELLOW) alert?
  • Which component is directly involved in regulating cabin pressure by venting air to the atmosphere?
  • Which weight parameter is the lowest among the listed CRJ-550/700 values?
  • When thrust levers are advanced to takeoff, the cabin pressure changes toward the scheduled cabin pressure at a rate of change of how many ft/min?
  • What occurs when the APU FIRE switch light is depressed?
  • How many radio altimeters are there?
  • How many wing anti-ice schedules are there?
  • The tire limit speed is specified in which speed reference?
  • DME channels are allocated per RTU. How many channels are dedicated to each RTU?
  • Total fuel at full in pressure mode is what quantity?
  • During taxi, takeoff, and landing, the pressure differential must not exceed which value?
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